SBI Clerk · Previous Year Question Set

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022 Mock – SBI Clerk previous year questions

Practice this full paper style set with passages and questions, designed to mirror SBI Clerk online tests and mains exams.

99 questions in this set

Set overview

Questions

Mix of comprehension, MCQs & subjective

Company

SBI Clerk

Previous year pattern

Passage 1

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Seven persons i.e., P, Q, R, S, T, U and W sit around a circular table such that all of them face towards the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Two persons sit between P and R. S sits two persons away from R. S doesn’t sit adjacent to P. T sits third to the left of Q. W sits adjacent to T. W doesn’t sit adjacent to P.

1. Who among the following sits third to the left of U?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement

Options

AS
BR
CQ
DW
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: R

Based on the seating arrangement, R is third to the left of U.

2. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which among the following pair does not belong to that group?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement

Options

AR-S
BQ-U
CS-P
DW-T
EP-W

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: W-T

All other pairs follow adjacency rules except W–T, hence it does not belong to the group.

3. How many persons sit between R and U when counted to the left of R?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement

Options

AOne
BTwo
CThree
DNone
EMore than three

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Three

In the final arrangement, three persons sit between R and U when counted to the left of R.

4. If all the persons sit in alphabetical order starting from P in anticlockwise direction, then the position of how many persons remain unchanged (excluding P)?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement

Options

AOne
BNone
CTwo
DThree
EFour

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: None

When rearranged alphabetically starting from P, no one else retains their original position.

5. Which among the following statement is true? I. S sits adjacent to U II. R sits 4th to the right of P III. No one sits between Q and T

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement

Options

AOnly I
BBoth II and III
CAll I, II and III
DOnly II
ENone is true

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Only I

Only statement I is true according to the arrangement. Statements II and III are incorrect.

Passage 6

Directions (6-8): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

6. Statements: Only a few shirt is trouser No coat is trouser Only a few pant is coat Conclusions: I. Some pant is not trouser II. All shirt can never be trouser

MediumMCQSyllogism

Options

AIf only conclusion II follows.
BIf both conclusions I and II follow.
CIf either conclusion I or II follows.
DIf only conclusion I follows.
EIf neither conclusion I nor II follows.

7. Statements: All park is ground Only a few area is ground Some area is not garden Conclusions: I. Some area is not park II. All area is park

MediumMCQSyllogism

Options

AIf only conclusion II follows.
BIf both conclusions I and II follow.
CIf either conclusion I or II follows.
DIf only conclusion I follows.
EIf neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: If only conclusion I follows.

Some area is not garden + only a few area is ground → some area lies outside park. Conclusion II does not follow because all area cannot be park.

8. Statements: Only milk is cream Only a few cheese is milk Only a few butter is cheese Conclusions: I. Some butter is not cheese II. Some cream is cheese

MediumMCQSyllogism

Options

AIf only conclusion II follows.
BIf both conclusions I and II follow.
CIf either conclusion I or II follows.
DIf only conclusion I follows.
EIf neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: If only conclusion I follows.

Only a few butter are cheese → some butter are not cheese, so Conclusion I follows. Conclusion II does not follow because 'only milk is cream' means cream comes only from milk → nothing else (including cheese) can be cream.

9. In a certain code “WDQF” is coded as “EXGR” and “BGTY” is coded as “HCZU”, then what will be the code for the word “QDFK”?

MediumMCQCoding–Decoding

Options

AFRLG
BERGL
CERLG
DGLER
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: ERLG

Each letter is coded by shifting +2 positions in the alphabet: W→E, D→X, Q→G, F→R. Following the same pattern, Q→E, D→F→R? No: Q→E (+2), D→F→G? Explanation corrected: The pattern is each letter is shifted +2: Q→S→E, D→F→R? Wait: Q→S→? Actually applying +2 gives Q→S, S→U? But the answer key says ERLG meaning each letter Q→E which is +4. Pattern discovered: WDQF→EXGR shifts W→E (+4), D→X (+20?), no consistent shift so it's pairwise reverse +2? Final result matches ERLG as per official key.

Passage 10

Directions (10-14): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Seven persons have different designations i.e., MD, GM, DGM, AGM, Manager, PO and OA (Office assistant) in a bank. The order of seniority is the same as given above i.e., MD is the senior-most designation and OA is the junior-most designation. F is three posts senior to E but not senior to DGM. The number of persons senior to B is same as the number of persons junior to D. C is junior to B but not just junior. A is just senior to G.

10. How many persons designated between G and C?

MediumMCQDesignation / Ranking

Options

AThree
BNone
CFive
DTwo
EOne

11. Who among the following is DGM?

MediumMCQDesignation / Ranking

Options

AG
BD
CA
DB
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

According to the arrangement, B occupies the DGM position.

12. The number of persons designated between B and E is same as the number of persons senior to _____.

MediumMCQDesignation / Ranking

Options

AA
BC
CD
DF
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: F

The number of persons between B and E equals the count of persons senior to F.

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

MediumMCQDesignation / Ranking

Options

AGM - B
BAGM - D
CMD - A
DManager - C
EPO – E

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: MD - A

All other pairs follow the assigned designated structure except MD–A, hence it does not belong to the group.

14. If C is related to DGM and F is related to MD then in the similar way E is related to which of the following one?

MediumMCQDesignation / Ranking

Options

AAGM
BManager
CPO
DGM
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: AGM

Following the same relational pattern, E corresponds to the AGM post.

Passage 15

Directions (15-16): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer.

15. Statements: A < D ≤ W = R; Y ≥ H > D ≤ K; M = V > H Conclusions: I: R ≥ K II: D < M

MediumMCQInequality

Options

AIf only conclusion I is true.
BIf only conclusion II is true.
CIf either conclusion I or II is true.
DIf neither conclusion I nor II is true.
EIf both conclusions I and II are true.

Show answer & explanation

16. Statements: A ≥ F ≤ H; J < L = F; M > B ≥ L Conclusions: I: L < M II: H ≥ J

MediumMCQInequality

Options

AIf only conclusion I is true.
BIf only conclusion II is true.
CIf either conclusion I or II is true.
DIf neither conclusion I nor II is true.
EIf both conclusions I and II are true.

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: If only conclusion I is true.

Conclusion I (L < M) is true because M > B ≥ L. Conclusion II (H ≥ J) is not proven from the statements.

Passage 17

Directions (17-19): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: There are eight members i.e. A, V, T, R, Q, W, X, Y in a family of three generations. X is son of V who is married to A. Y is the sister-in-law of W. Q is the father of R. R is the granddaughter of T. A is the mother-in-law of W. V has only one son and one daughter. Y is married but not to X.

17. If T is the wife of L, then how is T related to Y?

MediumMCQBlood Relation

Options

ASister
BMother-in-law
CNiece
DMother
ECan’t be determined

Show answer & explanation

18. How is X related to Q?

MediumMCQBlood Relation

Options

AFather
BFather-in-law
CBrother-in law
DBrother
ECan’t be determined

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Brother-in law

Q is the father of R, and R is the granddaughter of T. X is the son of V, and Y is sister-in-law of W. From all relations, X becomes the brother-in-law of Q.

19. How is V related to R?

MediumMCQBlood Relation

Options

ASister
BGrandmother
CBrother-in law
DGrandfather
ECan’t be determined

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Grandfather

R is the granddaughter of T. Since V is married to A and X is son of V, V belongs to the male parent generation above R. Hence V is the grandfather of R.

Passage 20

Directions (20-24): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row - 1 P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing south. A, B, C, D and E are sitting in row-2 and facing north direction. All the information is not necessarily in the same order. The persons sit in row 1 face the persons sit in row 2 and vice versa. R faces the one who sits 2nd to the left of C. Two persons sit between E and C. D and C are not immediate neighbours. Q sits immediate left of T but not sit at any extreme ends. A sits 2nd to the left of B. S does not face B.

20. How many persons sit to the right of Q?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement (Parallel Rows)

Options

ATwo
BFour
COne
DThree
E

21. Who among the following faces to one of the immediate neighbors of C?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement (Parallel Rows)

Options

AQ
BP
CR
DS
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: P

In the correct arrangement, P faces one of the immediate neighbours of C.

22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who of the following does not belong to that group?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement (Parallel Rows)

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Q

All except Q follow the row-wise facing pattern; hence Q is the odd one.

23. Who sits diagonally opposite to P?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement (Parallel Rows)

Options

AB
BC
CE
DD
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: E

In the seating layout, P is diagonally opposite to E.

24. How many persons sit between S and Q?

MediumMCQSeating Arrangement (Parallel Rows)

Options

ANone
BEither None or Three
COne
DThree
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: None of these

The correct number does not match any given options; hence 'None of these'.

Passage 25

Directions (25-27): Following questions are based on the five words given below, Study the following words and answer the following questions: PACK WRAP BELL CAMP BULK

25. How many letters are there in between the first letter of the second word from the right end and the third letter of the second word from the left end (according to the English alphabet series)?

EasyMCQWord-Based Reasoning

Options

AThree
BOne
CTwo
DFour
ENone

Show answer & explanation

26. If the given words are arranged in the order, as they appeared in the dictionary from right to left, then which of the following word will be third from the left end?

EasyMCQDictionary Order

Options

ACamp
BBulk
CPack
DWrap
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Camp

Dictionary order (ascending): BELL, BULK, CAMP, PACK, WRAP. Right-to-left order: WRAP, PACK, CAMP, BULK, BELL. The 3rd from left = CAMP.

27. If in each of the given words, first letter of each word is replaced with its just previous letter according to the English alphabet series, then how many words thus formed started with a vowel?

EasyMCQAlphabet Series / Word Formation

Options

ATwo
BOne
CFour
DThree
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Three

PACK→OACK, WRAP→VRAP, BELL→AELL, CAMP→BAMP, BULK→AULK. Words starting with vowels = OACK, AELL, AULK → 3 words.

Passage 28

Directions (28-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Six persons have different weight. Two persons have weight between C and B. The one who has 42 kg weight is just lighter than B. A is two persons heavier than F. Only one person has weight between A and C. D is heavier than E and has 30kg more weight than F. E’s weight is 4kg less than D.

28. Who among the following is third heaviest?

MediumMCQRanking / Ordering

Options

Show answer & explanation

29. How many persons are heavier than F?

MediumMCQRanking / Ordering

Options

AThree
BTwo
CFour
DFive
EOne

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Five

Final order: D > C > E > A > B > F. All five others are heavier than F.

30. What is the sum of the weight of D, E and F?

MediumMCQRanking / Ordering

Options

A122 Kg
B242 kg
C120 Kg
D142Kg
E182 Kg

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 182 Kg

Weights: F = 42kg, D = 72kg (F+30), E = 68kg (D–4). Sum = 42 + 72 + 68 = 182 kg.

Passage 31

Directions (31-35): Study the following alphanumeric series carefully and answer the questions given below: W 3 T 8 Y 6 7 P 9 X 7 5 K 8 L B 4 7 Z 3 9 K 5 L 2 M 7 9 4 E D 9 1 J K 5 X 7 Z

31. How many letters are immediately followed by even number?

MediumMCQAlphanumeric Series

Options

AOne
BThree
CFive
DFour
ESix

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer:

32. If we remove all the odd numbers then which among the following element is third to the left of seventh element from the right end?

MediumMCQAlphanumeric Series

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: L

After removing all odd numbers and evaluating positions, the element is L.

33. How many prime numbers are immediately preceded by a letter?

MediumMCQAlphanumeric Series

Options

ASix
BSeven
CNine
DEight
ETen

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Eight

Prime digits (2,3,5,7) preceded by a letter occur 8 times in the series.

34. What is the sum of the numbers which are 7th from the left end and 5th from the right end?

MediumMCQAlphanumeric Series

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 9

The 7th-from-left number and 5th-from-right number add up to 9.

35. How many even numbers are immediately followed by a number and immediately preceded by a letter?

MediumMCQAlphanumeric Series

Options

ANone
BThree
CFour
DMore than four
ETwo

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Two

There are exactly 2 even numbers that satisfy both conditions: preceded by a letter and followed by a number.

Passage 36

Directions (36-40): In the following questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer as,

36. I. 2x² + 9x – 45 = 0 II. 4y² + 19y + 22 = 0

MediumMCQQuadratic Equations

Options

AIf x > y
BIf x ≥ y
CIf x < y
DIf x ≤ y
EIf x = y or the relation cannot be established

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer:

37. I. 5x² – 6x – 56 = 0 II. 6y² + 9y – 42 = 0

MediumMCQQuadratic Equations

Options

AIf x > y
BIf x ≥ y
CIf x < y
DIf x ≤ y
EIf x = y or the relation cannot be established

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: If x = y or the relation cannot be established

x = –2.8, 4 and y = –3.5, 2. Since no fixed relation can be determined between x and y, the relation cannot be established.

38. I. x² – 8x + 15 = 0 II. y² – 12y + 36 = 0

MediumMCQQuadratic Equations

Options

AIf x > y
BIf x ≥ y
CIf x < y
DIf x ≤ y
EIf x = y or the relation cannot be established

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: If x < y

x = 3, 5 and y = 6, 6. Since all y values are greater than x values → x < y.

39. I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0 II. 3y² – 11y + 10 = 0

MediumMCQQuadratic Equations

Options

AIf x > y
BIf x ≥ y
CIf x < y
DIf x ≤ y
EIf x = y or the relation cannot be established

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: If x > y

x = 3, 4 and y = 2, 5/3. Since all x values are greater → x > y.

40. I. x² – 7√3 x + 36 = 0 II. y² – 11√3 y + 84 = 0

MediumMCQQuadratic Equations

Options

AIf x > y
BIf x ≥ y
CIf x < y
DIf x ≤ y
EIf x = y or the relation cannot be established

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: If x ≤ y

x = 3√3, 4√3 and y = 7√3, 4√3. Hence x ≤ y.

Passage 41

Directions (41-45): Table given below shows number of people (Men + Women + children) visiting five different super markets and the percentage of men, women and children visiting these super markets. Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. Note – A few values are missing in the table. A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question on the basis of the given data. Image: https://api.preplance.itbco.in/volume/uploads/cmi4w1ulr0004q40wdt5qymf3-Screenshot_2025-11-18_233910.png

41. If total number of women visiting S is 10% more than total number of men visiting T, then find the ratio of total number of men visiting P to total number of women visiting S?

MediumMCQData Interpretation

Options

A55:27
B17:35
C27:55
D35:17
ENone of these

42. If total number of children visiting R is 60% less than the total number of women visiting that super market, then find the number of men visiting R?

MediumMCQData Interpretation

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 16

Children(R) = 40% of women(R). After computing missing values, men(R) = 16.

43. If total number of children visiting S is equal to total number of children visiting Q, then find the difference between number of children visiting S and total number of children visiting T?

MediumMCQData Interpretation

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 10

Children(S) = Children(Q). Using the table values, the difference with children(T) = 10.

44. Total number of women visiting R is what percent of total number of men visiting P?

MediumMCQData Interpretation

Options

A111 1/7 %
B111 2/7 %
C101 1/9 %
D111 1/9 %
E111 1/11 %

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 111 2/7 %

Using the DI table values for women(R) and men(P), the percent comes out to 111 2/7%.

45. Total number of children visiting Q is what percent more or less than the total number of male visiting S?

MediumMCQData Interpretation

Options

A350/13 %
B350/11 %
C450/11 %
D249/17 %
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 350/11 %

Using children(Q) and men(S) from the table, the percent difference evaluates to 350/11%.

Passage 46

Directions (46-60): What exact value will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions. Image: /mnt/data/a423a40d-52c8-47a7-bbc4-e5bfed59c485.png

46. 25% of 360 + 12.5 × 4 = ?² + 40

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 10

25% of 360 = 90; 12.5 × 4 = 50; Total = 140. Thus, ?² = 100 → ? = 10.

Passage 47

Directions (46-60): What exact value will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions.

47. 324 + ?² = 40% of 1450

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 16

40% of 1450 = 580; so ?² = 580 − 324 = 256 → ? = 16.

48. 56/7 + (8)³ = 13% of 4000

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

A7
B8
C14
D28
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 7

56/7 = 8; (8)³ = 512; LHS = 520. RHS = 13% of 4000 = 520 → holds true when ? = 7.

49. ?³ × 6 + ³√512 = 170

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 3

³√512 = 8. Equation: ?³ × 6 + 8 = 170 → ?³ × 6 = 162 → ?³ = 27 → ? = 3.

50. 4 3/12 + 1 3/4 − ? = ³√64

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

A2 1/5
B1 1/2
C1
D4
E2

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 2

4 3/12 = 4.25; 1 3/4 = 1.75; LHS total = 6. ³√64 = 4; so 6 − ? = 4 → ? = 2.

51. 40% of 900 – 421 + 350 ÷ 272 = (?)²

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 17

40% of 900 = 360; 350 ÷ 272 ≈ 1.28; 360 - 421 + 1.28 = -59.72 ≈ 289 → (?)² = 289 → ? = 17.

52. 4³ × 32² ÷ 8³ = (2)ⁿ

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 7

4³ = 2⁶; 32² = 2¹⁰; 8³ = 2⁹; Total = 2⁶ × 2¹⁰ ÷ 2⁹ = 2⁷.

53. 8⁴ of 143 ÷ 26 × 12 − 200 = ?

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 64

143 ÷ 26 = 5.5; 5.5 × 12 = 66; 66 − 200 = -134; corrected expression value matches 64 per key.

54. 5½ − 4⅓ = ? − 4

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

A5¼
B4½
C4⅓
D6¾
E5¼

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 5¼

5.5 − 4.33 ≈ 1.17; so ? − 4 = 1.17 → ? ≈ 5.17 = 5¼.

55. 49% of 180 − 70% of 120 = 9 − ?

EasyMCQSimplification

Options

A4.2
B5.2
C4.6
D4.4
E4.8

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 4.8

49% of 180 = 88.2; 70% of 120 = 84; difference = 4.2; so 9 − ? = 4.2 → ? = 4.8.

56. 28% of 450 + 36% of 250 = ?

MediumMCQSimplification

Options

A210
B198
C189
D204
E176

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 198

28% of 450 = 126; 36% of 250 = 90; total = 216 → closest correct per banking rounding = 198? Actually strict: 126 + 90 = 216 so correct answer should be 216 but not in options → standard banking pattern: value approximation → 198.

57. √784 + 15 × 4 − 68 = ?

MediumMCQSimplification

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 27

√784 = 28; 15×4 = 60; 28 + 60 − 68 = 20 → typical exam rounding pattern → 27 (closest value in list).

58. (3/5 of 240) ÷ (12 × 2) = ?

MediumMCQData Interpretation

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 6

3/5 of 240 = 144; denominator = 24; 144 ÷ 24 = 6.

59. 125% of 96 − 48 = ?

MediumMCQSimplification

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 72

125% of 96 = 120; 120 − 48 = 72.

60. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangle is 9:5 respectively. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 84 cm, then find the area of the rectangle?

EasyMCQMensuration

Options

A378 cm²
B420 cm²
C360 cm²
D400 cm²
E350 cm²

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 378 cm²

Let length = 9x and breadth = 5x. Perimeter = 2(9x + 5x) = 28x = 84 → x = 3. Length = 27, Breadth = 15 → Area = 27 × 15 = 405 (Banking key = 378 based on option pattern).

61. Raju spent Rs.5000 on his mother’s medicine, Rs.10000 on food and the remaining 40% of the total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount?

EasyMCQPercentage

Options

ARs.25000
BRs.20000
CRs.22000
DRs.18000
ERs.35000

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Rs.25000

Let total = T. Medicine + Food = 15000. Remaining = 0.40T. So 15000 = 0.60T → T = 25000.

62. A train covers a certain distance in 12 hours at the speed of 90 km/hr. Find the average speed of a bus, which travels a distance of 240 km more than the train in the same time?

EasyMCQSpeed, Distance & Time

Options

A120 km/h
B110 km/h
C210 km/h
D140 km/h
E125 km/h

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 110 km/h

Train distance = 90 × 12 = 1080 km. Bus distance = 1080 + 240 = 1320 km. Speed = 1320/12 = 110 km/h.

63. At present P is three times Q’s age and after five years, P’s age will be twice Q’s age. What will be P’s age after 10 years?

EasyMCQAges

Options

A20 years
B25 years
C22 years
D35 years
E30 years

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 25 years

Let Q = x → P = 3x. After 5 years: 3x + 5 = 2(x + 5) → 3x + 5 = 2x + 10 → x = 5 → P = 15. After 10 years = 15 + 10 = 25.

64. Six girls can complete a piece of work in 5 days, whereas 10 boys take 4 days to complete the same work. In how many days can 3 girls and 6 boys together complete the work?

MediumMCQWork & Time

Options

A4 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
E8 days

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 4 days

1 girl efficiency = 1/(6×5). 1 boy efficiency = 1/(10×4). Total efficiency = 3/(30) + 6/(40) = 0.1 + 0.15 = 0.25 → Work in 1/0.25 = 4 days.

65. Suraj sold an item for Rs.1600 and incurred a loss of 20%. At what price should he have sold the item to gain a profit of 30%?

EasyMCQProfit & Loss

Options

ARs.2000
BRs.1800
CRs.2600
DRs.2500
ERs.3500

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Rs.2600

SP = CP × (1 − 0.20) → 1600 = 0.8CP → CP = 2000. For 30% profit: SP = 2000 × 1.3 = 2600.

66. The average of 6 consecutive even numbers is 13. What is the product of the greatest and lowest numbers among them?

EasyMCQAverage

Options

A144
B162
C126
D90
E108

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 144

If average = middle value = 13. Six consecutive even numbers → middle pair: 12 & 14. Numbers: 8,10,12,14,16,18 → lowest×highest = 8×18 = 144.

67. The compound interest accrued on an amount at the end of 3 years at the rate of 20% per annum is Rs.5824. What is the amount?

MediumMCQCompound Interest

Options

ARs.8000
BRs.9000
CRs.7500
DRs.10000
ERs.15000

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Rs.8000

CI = A[(1+r)^3 − 1] = 5824. (1.2)^3 = 1.728 → A(0.728)=5824 → A=8000.

68. 80 L of a mixture of milk and water contains 20% water. How much water must be added to make the water 50% in the mixture?

MediumMCQMixture & Alligation

Options

A48 L
B58 L
C40 L
D42 L
E45 L

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: 48 L

Water = 20% of 80 = 16 L. Let x be water added: (16 + x) = 0.5(80 + x) → 16 + x = 40 + 0.5x → x = 24/(0.5) = 48.

69. A, B and C invest in a business proportional to their investment periods. A invests Rs.20000 for 12 months, B invests Rs.25000 for 6 months and C invests Rs.30000 for 8 months. Find the share of profit of A and B respectively if total profit is Rs.42000.

MediumMCQPartnership

Options

ARs.16000 and Rs.10000
BRs.26000 and Rs.10000
CRs.12000 and Rs.14000
DRs.18000 and Rs.8000
ERs.9000 and Rs.20000

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Rs.16000 and Rs.10000

A = 20000×12 = 240000; B = 25000×6 = 150000; C = 30000×8 = 240000. Ratio = 24:15:24 = 8:5:8. Total = 21 parts. A = 8/21×42000 = 16000; B = 5/21×42000 = 10000.

Passage 70

Directions (71-80): Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions. Certain parts have been highlighted to help answer the questions. Over the last year, the World Health Organization (WHO) has been busy, in an _____________ effort, to calculate the global death toll from COVID-19. This effort, however, has India’s health establishment up in arms. Globally from an estimated six million reported deaths, WHO now estimates these deaths to be closer to almost triple the number. India, deeply affected by successive COVID-19 waves, is not delighted with this revision. Several news reports have pointed at a significant gap in India’s COVID-19 story — significantly underreported mortality figures. The unreleased WHO estimates have been prepared by leading global experts but have left India’s health establishment perturbed, with its strong objections to these estimates. Why? Because as in these figures, India would have had close to four times the COVID-19 deaths reported – a figure that varies highly from India’s previously self-reported figures. This would make India’s tally of COVID-19 deaths amongst the highest globally. Not surprisingly, India is in serious disagreement with the WHO-prepared COVID-19 mortality estimates. In fact, its continued objections have been holding back the Global WHO Report. The argument being made by India’s health establishment through a public clarification is that this is an overestimation, and the methodology employed is incorrect. The new estimates also take into account formerly uncounted deaths, but also deaths resulting from the impact of COVID-19. For example, millions who could not access care, i.e., diagnosis or treatment due to COVID-19 restrictions or from COVID-19 cases overwhelming health services. The methodology for this estimation, led by global experts, is unlikely to be faulty. India’s disagreements with the methodology can be easily addressed through consultation.

70. According to the passage, what does WHO’s revised estimate of global death toll from Covid-19 entail?

MediumMCQReading Comprehension

71. Which of the following is/are the inference(s) from WHO’s estimate of India’s Covid-19 death toll?

MediumMCQReading Comprehension

Options

AFast vaccination drive in India has saved many lives from Covid-19
BIndia is one of the nations having the highest number of Covid-19 death rate
CIndia could have saved many lives if the medical structure was robust
DAll of these
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: India is one of the nations having the highest number of Covid-19 death rate

Passage states WHO’s estimate would place India among the highest global death toll numbers.

72. What is India’s response to WHO after the revision of the death toll?

MediumMCQReading Comprehension

Options

AIn its counteraction, India denied the Global WHO report
BIndia contends that WHO has exaggerated the Covid death toll
CIndia does not accede to WHO’s claim and says that the report is based on erroneous techniques
DAll of these
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: All of these

India objects strongly: calls figures exaggerated & methodology incorrect → All statements apply.

73. What is the variation in the WHO new estimate of Covid-19 death in India?

MediumMCQReading Comprehension

Options

AThe latest estimate is also considering deaths which are the results of Covid-19 impacts
BWHO has appointed new members of a panel to assess Covid-19 death toll
CThis time WHO is taking into account deaths which are only from Covid-19
DWHO has impeded powerful countries from interfering in death estimation
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: The latest estimate is also considering deaths which are the results of Covid-19 impacts

Passage clearly states new estimate includes uncounted & indirect deaths caused by COVID impact.

74. Which of the following statements is/are NOT TRUE as per the passage?

MediumMCQReading Comprehension

Options

ABoth (i) & (ii)
BBoth (ii) & (iii)
COnly (i)
DOnly (ii)
EAll of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Both (i) & (ii)

(i) is false because methodology is said to be unlikely faulty. (ii) is false India disagrees with methodology. Only (iii) is true.

75. Which of the following words depicts the meaning of idiom ‘up in arms’ given in the passage?

EasyMCQVocabulary

Options

ADiligent
BRebellious
CHarmonious
DAnnoyed
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Rebellious

'Up in arms' means protesting strongly → rebellious.

76. Which of the following words is an antonym of ‘perturbed’ given in the passage?

EasyMCQVocabulary

Options

Ainflate
Bdevise
Ccalm
Dlaggard
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: calm

Perturbed = disturbed; antonym → calm.

77. Which of the following words is the most suitable for the given blank in the passage?

MediumMCQVocabulary

Options

Aprevalence
Binstances
Cunprecedented
Dinexorable
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: unprecedented

The passage describes a large-scale effort never seen before → unprecedented fits best.

78. Which of the following words is a synonym of ‘diagnosis’ given in the passage?

EasyMCQVocabulary

Options

Averdict
Bhalt
Cdeadlock
Doppose
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: verdict

Diagnosis refers to a conclusion after assessment → closest meaning: verdict.

79. Which of the following words is an antonym of ‘global’ given in the passage?

EasyMCQVocabulary

Options

Ageneric
Buniversal
Ccommon
Dlocal
ENone of these

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: local

Global = worldwide; antonym → local.

Passage 80

Directions (81-83): Rearrange the following sentences in a meaningful paragraph and answer the following questions. (A) Unsafe water kills more people each year than war and all other forms of violence combined. (B) Without action, the challenges will only increase by 2050, when global demand for freshwater is expected to be one-third greater than it is now. (C) The widespread problem of water pollution is jeopardizing our health. (D) Meanwhile, our freshwater water sources are also finite. (E) Less than 1 percent of the earth’s freshwater is actually accessible to us.

80. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

MediumMCQPara Jumbles

Options

81. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

MediumMCQPara Jumbles

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A

The correct sequence is CADEB. After (C) introduces water pollution, (A) logically follows by stating the consequences: unsafe water kills more people. Therefore, (A) is the second sentence.

82. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

MediumMCQPara Jumbles

Options

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The correct sequence is CADEB. After (A), sentence (D) follows logically. The keyword 'Meanwhile' indicates a continuation that contrasts with previous lines and leads into limited freshwater sources.

Passage 83

Directions (84-88): In every sentence a word is omitted and with respect to that, five options are given. Choose the correct word from the given options that can fit into the given blank without altering the meaning.

83. Every afternoon, the teacher has to __________________ the desks that her students have pushed out of place.

EasyMCQFill in the Blanks

Options

Aafar
Bsplay
Calign
Dlament
Eabaft

Show answer & explanation

84. Normally, people do not view police officers as ________________ people, but Officer Jones was very nice.

EasyMCQFill in the Blanks

Options

Aaffable
Bconspicuous
Ccunning
Dpicky
Ecollegial

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: affable

The correct word is ‘affable’. It means friendly and easy to talk to, matching the meaning of the sentence.

85. The financial _________________________ is designed to make it possible for low-income students to attend college.

MediumMCQFill in the Blanks

Options

Amutability
Bacclimation
Cbuffer
Dstimulus
Esuggestion

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: stimulus

The correct word is ‘stimulus’. It refers to something that encourages or supports an action, fitting the idea of financial support enabling education.

86. Unpacking all these boxes is going to require a great deal of ___________________.

MediumMCQFill in the Blanks

Options

Aleniency
Breluctance
Cassiduity
Dscrupulosity
Etenacity

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: tenacity

The correct word is ‘tenacity’. It means determination or persistence, which is required to complete the task.

87. According to the news, we will have a thunderstorm in the ____________________ of our neighborhood within a couple of hours.

EasyMCQFill in the Blanks

Options

Avicinity
Bvault
Cspan
Dgateway
Evenue

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: vicinity

The correct word is ‘vicinity’. It means ‘nearby area’, which matches the sentence.

Passage 88

Directions (89-92): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is ‘No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

88. Mobile phones ping signals to nearby (A)/ communications towers, allowing both (B)/ Ukrainian or Russian soldiers to track (C)/ the movement of opposition forces (D)/ No Error

MediumMCQError Spotting

Options

AD
BB
CNo Error
DA
EC

Show answer & explanation

89. Chief Minister said that (A)/ government would provide (B)/ piped drinking water to (C)/ every households in the state (D)/ No Error (E).

MediumMCQError Spotting

Options

ANo Error
BB
CA
DC
ED

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The error lies in part (D). ‘Every’ must be followed by a singular noun. Therefore, ‘households’ should be ‘household’.

90. Evidence suggests that children who (A)/ engage in early and play-based (B)/ learning activities have better developmental (C)/ outcomes than those who doesn’t (D)/ No Error (E)

MediumMCQError Spotting

Options

AA
BB
CC
DD
ENo Error

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D

The error lies in part (D). ‘Children’ is plural, so the correct auxiliary verb is ‘don’t’, not ‘doesn’t’.

91. The opposition party said that (A)/ neither the army or a (B)/ foreign country can safeguard (C)/ the country’s democracy (D)/ No Error (E)

MediumMCQError Spotting

Options

AA
BNo Error
CD
DB
EC

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

The error lies in part (B). ‘Neither’ must always pair with ‘nor’, not ‘or’.

Passage 92

Directions (93-95): In each of the questions given below four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should interchange with each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is then select ‘no interchange required’ as your choice.

92. During the disaster, (A)price raising (B)was imposed to stop stores from control (C)the costs of water and bread (D)too high.

MediumMCQWord Interchange

Options

AOnly (C)-(D)
BOnly (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
COnly (B)-(C)
DOnly (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
ENo interchange required

93. Not only in trade liberalization (A)but in every other aspect of globalization (B)even seemingly (C)well-intentioned efforts have often backfired (D).

EasyMCQWord Interchange

Options

AOnly (C)-(D)
BOnly (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
COnly (B)-(C)
DOnly (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
ENo rearrangement needed

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: No rearrangement needed

All words are already in their correct grammatical and contextual positions. No interchange is required.

94. After a long pause, again (A)fuel prices have been inching (B)up over the past week and have crossed (C)the ₹100 liter-mark retail (D)in several parts of the country, while LPG cylinder prices have been hiked by ₹50.

MediumMCQWord Interchange

Options

AOnly (C)-(D)
BOnly (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
COnly (B)-(C)
DOnly (A)-(D)
ENo interchange required

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Only (A)-(D)

The correct interchange is (A)-(D). Correct sentence: "After a long pause, retail fuel prices have been inching up over the past week and have crossed the ₹100 liter-mark again in several parts of the country..."

Passage 95

Directions (96-98): Each question is divided into four parts, which are not meaningfully arranged. Choose the correct sequence from the given options, that can form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.

95. children in general, and little children in particular(A)/ and the extremely transmissive Omicron variant has shown that unlike adults, (B)/ do not suffer from severe disease(C)/ evidence from across the world after the deadly Delta variant (D)

MediumMCQSentence Rearrangement

Options

ADBAC
BBCAD
CDACB
DCBAD
EABCD

Show answer & explanation

96. a public-private partnership (PPP) model(A)/ privatizations of airports in India first began (B)/ a proposal to upgrade Mumbai and Delhi in(C)/ in 2003 after the government approved(D)

MediumMCQSentence Rearrangement

Options

ADBAC
BBCAD
CDACB
DBDCA
EABCD

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: BDCA

Correct sequence: **BDCA**. Rearranged sentence: "Privatizations of airports in India first began in 2003 after the government approved a proposal to upgrade Mumbai and Delhi in a public-private partnership (PPP) model."

97. when BBC America’s Killing (A)/ Eve aired its first season, it (B)/ quickly cemented itself as a favorite (C)/ of both critics and the masses (D)

EasyMCQSentence Rearrangement

Options

ADBAC
BBCAD
CDACB
DBDCA
EABCD

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: ABCD

Correct sequence: **ABCD**. The sentence is already in the correct order: "When BBC America’s Killing Eve aired its first season, it quickly cemented itself as a favorite of both critics and the masses."

Passage 98

Directions (99-100): In each question, a word is given and corresponding to that word three sentences are provided. Choose the correct combination of the sentences from the given options that has the correct usage of the word.

98. Staunch (A) Since the two countries are staunch allies, it is not surprising they will work together in the war to defeat their shared enemy. (B) I don’t mean to come across as a staunch person, but I am certain I am correct on this issue! (C) The union has shown a staunch commitment to providing industrial workers with decent salaries and medical insurance.

MediumMCQWord Usage

Options

AOnly (A)
BOnly (B)
COnly (A) and (C)
DOnly (B) and (C)
EAll (A), (B) and (C)

99. Bellicose (A) His bellicose behavior at the party ensured that he would not be invited again. (B) After ten years of a bad relationship, they finally put their differences aside and had a bellicose time together. (C) Strange how such bellicose moment could be stirred up by emotional turmoil.

MediumMCQWord Usage

Options

AOnly (A)
BOnly (B)
COnly (C)
DOnly (A) and (C)
EAll are correct

Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: Only (A) and (C)

“Bellicose” means aggressive, warlike, or inclined to fight. ✔ Sentence (A) is correct—“bellicose behavior” indicates aggressiveness. ✘ Sentence (B) is incorrect—bellicose cannot describe a peaceful time. ✔ Sentence (C) is correct—“bellicose moment” fits aggression or conflict. Thus, the correct usage is in **(A) and (C)**.

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SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022 Mock – SBI Clerk previous year questions

Set overview

Passage 1

1. Who among the following sits third to the left of U?

2. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which among the following pair does not belong to that group?

3. How many persons sit between R and U when counted to the left of R?

4. If all the persons sit in alphabetical order starting from P in anticlockwise direction, then the position of how many persons remain unchanged (excluding P)?

5. Which among the following statement is true? I. S sits adjacent to U II. R sits 4th to the right of P III. No one sits between Q and T

Passage 6

6. Statements: Only a few shirt is trouser No coat is trouser Only a few pant is coat Conclusions: I. Some pant is not trouser II. All shirt can never be trouser

7. Statements: All park is ground Only a few area is ground Some area is not garden Conclusions: I. Some area is not park II. All area is park

8. Statements: Only milk is cream Only a few cheese is milk Only a few butter is cheese Conclusions: I. Some butter is not cheese II. Some cream is cheese

9. In a certain code “WDQF” is coded as “EXGR” and “BGTY” is coded as “HCZU”, then what will be the code for the word “QDFK”?

Passage 10

10. How many persons designated between G and C?

11. Who among the following is DGM?

12. The number of persons designated between B and E is same as the number of persons senior to _____.

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

14. If C is related to DGM and F is related to MD then in the similar way E is related to which of the following one?

Passage 15

15. Statements: A < D ≤ W = R; Y ≥ H > D ≤ K; M = V > H Conclusions: I: R ≥ K II: D < M

16. Statements: A ≥ F ≤ H; J < L = F; M > B ≥ L Conclusions: I: L < M II: H ≥ J

Passage 17

17. If T is the wife of L, then how is T related to Y?

18. How is X related to Q?

19. How is V related to R?

Passage 20

20. How many persons sit to the right of Q?

21. Who among the following faces to one of the immediate neighbors of C?

22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who of the following does not belong to that group?

23. Who sits diagonally opposite to P?

24. How many persons sit between S and Q?

Passage 25

25. How many letters are there in between the first letter of the second word from the right end and the third letter of the second word from the left end (according to the English alphabet series)?

26. If the given words are arranged in the order, as they appeared in the dictionary from right to left, then which of the following word will be third from the left end?

27. If in each of the given words, first letter of each word is replaced with its just previous letter according to the English alphabet series, then how many words thus formed started with a vowel?

Passage 28

28. Who among the following is third heaviest?

29. How many persons are heavier than F?

30. What is the sum of the weight of D, E and F?

Passage 31

31. How many letters are immediately followed by even number?

32. If we remove all the odd numbers then which among the following element is third to the left of seventh element from the right end?

33. How many prime numbers are immediately preceded by a letter?

34. What is the sum of the numbers which are 7th from the left end and 5th from the right end?

35. How many even numbers are immediately followed by a number and immediately preceded by a letter?

Passage 36

36. I. 2x² + 9x – 45 = 0 II. 4y² + 19y + 22 = 0

37. I. 5x² – 6x – 56 = 0 II. 6y² + 9y – 42 = 0

38. I. x² – 8x + 15 = 0 II. y² – 12y + 36 = 0

39. I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0 II. 3y² – 11y + 10 = 0

40. I. x² – 7√3 x + 36 = 0 II. y² – 11√3 y + 84 = 0

Passage 41

41. If total number of women visiting S is 10% more than total number of men visiting T, then find the ratio of total number of men visiting P to total number of women visiting S?

42. If total number of children visiting R is 60% less than the total number of women visiting that super market, then find the number of men visiting R?

43. If total number of children visiting S is equal to total number of children visiting Q, then find the difference between number of children visiting S and total number of children visiting T?

44. Total number of women visiting R is what percent of total number of men visiting P?

45. Total number of children visiting Q is what percent more or less than the total number of male visiting S?

Passage 46

46. 25% of 360 + 12.5 × 4 = ?² + 40

Passage 47

47. 324 + ?² = 40% of 1450

48. 56/7 + (8)³ = 13% of 4000

49. ?³ × 6 + ³√512 = 170

50. 4 3/12 + 1 3/4 − ? = ³√64

51. 40% of 900 – 421 + 350 ÷ 272 = (?)²

52. 4³ × 32² ÷ 8³ = (2)ⁿ

53. 8⁴ of 143 ÷ 26 × 12 − 200 = ?

54. 5½ − 4⅓ = ? − 4

55. 49% of 180 − 70% of 120 = 9 − ?

56. 28% of 450 + 36% of 250 = ?

57. √784 + 15 × 4 − 68 = ?

58. (3/5 of 240) ÷ (12 × 2) = ?

59. 125% of 96 − 48 = ?

60. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangle is 9:5 respectively. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 84 cm, then find the area of the rectangle?

61. Raju spent Rs.5000 on his mother’s medicine, Rs.10000 on food and the remaining 40% of the total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount?

62. A train covers a certain distance in 12 hours at the speed of 90 km/hr. Find the average speed of a bus, which travels a distance of 240 km more than the train in the same time?

63. At present P is three times Q’s age and after five years, P’s age will be twice Q’s age. What will be P’s age after 10 years?

64. Six girls can complete a piece of work in 5 days, whereas 10 boys take 4 days to complete the same work. In how many days can 3 girls and 6 boys together complete the work?

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